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Re: [Ltru] To invert or not to invert?



Debbie Garside scripsit:

> BTW, IMHO there is a marked difference between "Church Slavonic" and "Old
> Church Slavonic"; two separate entities.

Yes and no.  The distinction is analogous to the difference between
Mediaeval and Classical Latin.  In both cases we have a literary
language based on an archaic version of the spoken language, with some
accommodations to the vernacular next to which it is used.  As time
goes on, the adaptations grow larger and more diverse as the vernacular
forms split into separate languages (eventually with their own literary
traditions), new vocabulary is added, and the especially archaic features
of the old standard are dropped, first in phonology, then in morphosyntax.

But in both cases the changes are slow and gradual, and do not amount to
a change of language according to the ISO 639-3 definitions.  RFC 4646
variants is probably the right level, if anyone needs to make the
distinction.

-- 
On the Semantic Web, it's too hard to prove     John Cowan    cowan at ccil.org
you're not a dog.  --Bill de hOra               http://www.ccil.org/~cowan

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